Toribash
Prev Previous Post   Next Post Next
Originally Posted by xlr84life View Post
" The CDHRI gives men and women the "right to marriage" regardless of their race, colour, or nationality,*but not religion
. In addition, women are given "equal human dignity", "own rights to enjoy", "duties to perform", "own civil entity", "financial independence", and the "right to retain her name and lineage",*but not equal rights in general"

I don't see where it restricts women rights.

"The CDHRI concludes in article 24 and 25 that all rights and freedoms mentioned are subject to the Islamic sharia, which is the declaration's sole source."
Do you understand what that means? That means that any assurance of rights or freedoms are filtered through Sharia law. You have the Sharia version of 'financial independence' which equates to 'women can't work without permission of their husbands'. If we're reading and quoting from wiki, then why don't we quote one of the introductory passages as well? "It guarantees many of the same rights as the UDHR (cf. liberal Islam), while at the same time reaffirming the inequalities inherent in Islamic law and tradition in terms of religion, gender, sexuality, political rights, and other aspects of contemporary society at odds with Islamic law and traditions."

Originally Posted by xlr84life View Post
Men and women are equal. With different rights. Why don't you argue on the part where men is responsible for spending on the family? And that women don't have to? At the end the hardships of both genders equal up. You just don't want to know about it.

That's not how equality works. You don't get equality by balancing the lack of rights of women with the lack of rights of men.

Originally Posted by xlr84life View Post
Now, find me solid proof where Islam says women are less valued than man. You can't. We are both equally important.

Off the topic of my head, under Sharia, women's accounts as witnesses are weighed half as much men - two female accounts = one male account.
I can also recall, earlier in this thread, or the other one, Moonshake posting from the Quran "Qur'an (2:228 ) - "And women shall have rights similar to the rights against them, according to what is equitable; but men have a degree (of advantage) over them".

Now, I also recall telling you the difference between intent and result. For the last time, it doesn't matter what the fuck Islam says it is, the reality is reflected in Sharia law.

Originally Posted by Gorman View Post
Are you saying that mild inequality is actually equality?

I believe I'm saying that women not being able to leave the house without permission or being able to seek employment without permission is not mild.


Originally Posted by Gorman View Post
You sure dodged that question lol.

So I'm guessing you are trying to say once again that women are not oppressed...

I believe I'm saying that women not being able to leave the house without permission or being able to seek employment without permission is not mild.

Originally Posted by Gorman View Post
That's not true though, even the largest Muslim country in the world doesn't implement Sharia.

"The biggest Muslim country doesn't do it therefor you're lying". Link to application of Sharia law by country. All those Islamic countries in blue there have a system where they fully implement Sharia.

Originally Posted by Gorman View Post
Also there's no such thing as a country with a large number of wahabists [sic], go check out their demographics mate.

Countries in the Arabic Penninsula have rates of wahhabists in the 40s. Besides, I wasn't the one who first used the term 'wahhabist countries' - that was you. I was using the term for your sake.

Originally Posted by Gorman View Post
So are you trying to argue that when they /did/ accept the UDHR they weren't Islamic?

Nope. I'm arguing that most Muslim countries don't accept the UDHR. You said they did once. I said 'who the fuck cares, they don't now, and that's the point I'm making'. We're not having a discussion about Islam 20 years ago. We're having a discussion about Islam today.

Originally Posted by Gorman View Post
Either Islam doesn't conflict the UDHR (which is why they accepted it initially), or it does conflict and they weren't Islamic at that time. It's pretty simple.

Mate, you're right, it is pretty simple. A quick fact check will show you that the reason they split was because the UDHR was too secular, and they wanted a system that recognised Sharia as legit.
Last edited by Ele; Jan 13, 2015 at 11:50 AM.