EDIT: Since the original statement from ImmoPig went along the lines: "So increasing the minimum wage helps none?"
That's not what I said in the statement to which you offered the rebuttal, actualy, the class that get's hit the hardest from it is the unemployed, thereafter the middle class and lastly the rich. The poor with no saving but an increased wage would benefit from it, and so would anyone earning the minimum pay, as long as they live on their income. earlier you asked "How does people being rich hurt you?" and well, it's quite simple how a unven distribution of wealth affects society: there is 1 shop with 4 items and 5 buyers. All have the same amount of money, purely based from the same amount of income, the goods get somewhat evenly distributed, the one who does not attain the item attains it the next time the item is restocked. However, in the next scenario we have 1 guy with twice the money and twice the income, 2 with the same money and income and 2 with half the money and half the income, after lets say 30 income cycles, we clearly see how unevenly the item has been distributed. Now, this is how someone being rich can be negative to someone else, as in general it's just a uneven distribution of wealth, mainly from income.
Originally Posted by
ImmortalPig
Dude, don't just randomly post links that you clearly HAVE NOT READ... That is not how citations work!
Thanks for your input, let me offer just some rebuttal:
Originally Posted by
ImmortalPig
Is this even true though?
Let's look at the Stanford link:
Is the relationship between wealth and crime actually strong enough to rely on? Looking at the homicide vs income inequality graph, we can see it's pretty damn loose, what's more in USA it's pretty damn loose too. Do the statistics even show that more wealth = less crime? The graph is actually homicide vs income inequality - a large value of inequality shows a lot of disparity, not a lot of poor people, thus saying that the graph shows poor = more crime is incorrect, it actually shows more disparity = more crime.
Observed the general crime rates has declined in the US during the past decades, however, general crime and the correlation between homicide still stands. I do think you misrepresent my point here, but yes I should have clarified what I aimed at within the data.
Originally Posted by
ImmortalPig
Would raising the minimum wage actually give us all more money? If instead, as many predict, it will cause businesses to downsize then unemployment will increase along with crime as the stanford link shows.
"[...]showing that although unemployment has increased in recent years, crime rates have continued to fall. "
Once again you use the word crime as loosely as I did, however I fail to see how the data shows any correlation between increasing unemployment and increasing crime rates. The data purely depicts the correlation between unemployment and crime rate as negative and income inequality and homicides as positive. According to the data a increased unemployment leads to less crime, which suggests that the two might not be linked directly.
Originally Posted by
ImmortalPig
Literally the first line of the worldbank link is "We investigate the robustness and causality of the link between income inequality and violent crime across countries"
And the first lines of the conclusion in the report:
"The main conclusion of this paper is that income inequality, measured by
the Gini index, has a significant and positive effect on the incidence of crime."
Moving on:
Originally Posted by
ImmortalPig
Moving on, Levit S "The Changing Relationship between Income and Crime Victimization" - this article is about victimization, and actually concludes that poor people used to be unlikely victims of property orientated crime but are increasingly targeted, but the link between neighbourhood income and crime has WEAKENED (aka this is evidence counter to your assertion, this is why you should read your citations!!!) - "there is no relationship between median family income in the neighborhood and homicide rates in the 1990s."
Now, I already knew that I were very precise in the data I extracted from this one, and it surrounds the lines:
"National victimization data suggest that property crime victimization have become increasingly concentrated among the poor over the last twenty years"
But yes, you bring up some interesting points that I can play along with:
"Income inequality across Chicago neighborhoods has increased sharply over the last twenty years. Interestingly, however, the link between neighborhood income and homicide rates has substantially weakened over the same time period. In fact, for whites, there is no relationship between median family income in the neighborhood and homicide rates in the 1990s."
Oddly specific that this 1) only goes for "whites" and 2) that there seems to still be a link between having no money and crime, either it be you carrying out a crime, or being a victim of it.
Also, I chose this one due to the literature review which were a quite interesting read that summarizes the inconsistency in 1) data and interpretation in different reports and 2) the general consensus on the issue that there seems to be a link between income inequality and crime*.
* now the issue with the subject at hand is the loosely used term crime as some studies tend to make generalization towards the subject at large whilst sampling only a small portion of all crime. Generally speaking, it becomes messy and that if you find this part interesting, there are a countless number of reports trying to clear out the statistical significance between different types of crime and the summarized term "crime".
Originally Posted by
ImmortalPig
Lastly you linked an article from Northwestern University, this article starts off interestingly: "The purpose of this study is to test the hypothesis that there is both a hereditary and an environmental component to the relation of social class and criminality. This analysis is possible because of the availability of data on a population of adoptees in Denmark. " (remembering from the earlier stanford article that Denmark has low income disparity and crime). I'm not going to discuss the article in depth but: "On the experiential side it is known that lower class status is connected to a variety of crime-associated characteristics such as less intellectual stimulation and lower educational attainment, greater disparity between opportunities and aspirations and greater likelihood of criminal associations. " So would decreasing income disparity between lower and middle class really help? No, it wouldn't.
Did you even bother reading the rest of it? As to why focusing on adoptees in Denmark:
"[...]Most studies that test the relationship of social class and crime using official criminality as a dependent variable suffer from sampling problems. [...]"
Now, table 5 in that report shows a clear correlation between income class of the adoptees parents and the adoptees with a crime conviction under their belt.
Originally Posted by
ImmortalPig
I doubt employment rate could be held, I have no citation but I have read articles saying that businesses were planning to downsize in sanfran (?) if there was a minimum wage raise.
So, come again?
Last edited by Smogard49; Feb 16, 2016 at 04:36 PM.
Reason: ImmortalPig 1) can't read or 2) chose to misrepresent the data.